NCLEX-RN Dumps To Pass NCLEX Certification Exam in One Day (Updated 865 Questions)
NCLEX-RN Exam Brain Dumps - Study Notes and Theory
NCLEX-RN exam is administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN), and its content is based on the knowledge and skills necessary for the entry-level practice of registered nursing. NCLEX-RN exam is designed to ensure that nurses are prepared to provide safe and effective care to patients in a variety of healthcare settings. Passing the NCLEX-RN exam is a requirement for licensure as a registered nurse in the US, and it is critical for aspiring nurses to prepare thoroughly for the exam to achieve success.
NCLEX-RN is a certification exam designed to test the knowledge and competency of individuals seeking to become licensed registered nurses in the United States. NCLEX-RN exam is created and administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) and is recognized as the standard measure of nursing proficiency across all 50 states.
Preparing for the NCLEX-RN exam is an essential part of becoming a registered nurse. Candidates are recommended to start preparing for the exam early in their nursing education to ensure they have the necessary knowledge and skills to pass the exam. There are numerous resources available for candidates to prepare for the exam, including study materials, practice exams, and review courses. Candidates should also familiarize themselves with the format and content of the exam to reduce test anxiety and increase their chances of success.
NEW QUESTION # 117
A 26-year-old male client is brought by his wife to the emergency department (ED) unconscious. Blood is drawn for a stat blood count (CBC), fasting blood sugar level, and electrolytes. An indwelling urinary catheter is inserted. He has a history of type 1 diabetes (insulindependent diabetes mellitus [IDDM]). A diagnosis of ketoacidosis is made. Stat lab values reveal a blood sugar level of 520 mg/dL. Which of the following should the nurse expect to administer in the ER?
- A. NPH insulin SC
- B. D50W by IV push
- C. Regular insulin by IV infusion
- D. Sweetened grape juice by mouth
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This action would further increase the client's blood sugar. (B) NPH insulin is an intermediate-acting insulin, with an average of 4-6 hours before onset of action. The client needs insulin that will act immediately. During a ketoacidotic state, the client is dehydrated, so any insulin administered SC will be poorly absorbed. (C) Regular insulin is the fastest acting-insulin; when given IV, it will immediately act to decrease blood sugar. Regular insulin is given to decrease blood glucose levels by promoting metabolism of glucose, inhibiting lipolysis and formation of ketone bodies. (D) This action would further increase the client's blood sugar.
NEW QUESTION # 118
A 74-year-old female client is 3 days postoperative. She has an indwelling catheter and has been progressing well. While the nurse is in the room, the client states, "Oh dear, I feel like I have to urinate again!" Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing response?
- A. Check the collection bag and tubing to verify that the catheter is draining properly.
- B. Ask her if she has felt this way before.
- C. Instruct her to do Kegel exercises to diminish the urge to void.
- D. Assure her that this is most likely the result of bladder spasms.
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Although this may be an appropriate response, the initial response would be to assure the patency of the catheter. (B) The most frequent reason for an urge to void with an indwelling catheter is blocked tubing. This response would be the best initial response. (C) Kegel exercises while a retention catheter is in place would not help to prevent a voiding urge and could irritate the urethral sphincter. (D) Though the nurse would want to ascertain whether the client has felt the same urge to void before, the initial response should be to assure the patency of the catheter.
NEW QUESTION # 119
A client with emphysema is placed on diuretics. In order to avoid potassium depletion as a side effect of the drug therapy, which of the following foods should be included in his diet?
- A. Liver
- B. Tomatoes
- C. Celery
- D. Potatoes
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set A
Explanation:
(A) Celery is high in sodium. (B) Potatoes are high in potassium. (C) Tomatoes are high in sodium. (D) Liver is high in iron.
NEW QUESTION # 120
A client returns to the cardiovascular intensive care unit following his coronary artery bypass graft. In planning his care, the most important electrolyte the nurse needs to monitor will be:
- A. Chloride
- B. Potassium
- C. HCO3
- D. Sodium
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Chloride, HCO3, and sodium will need to be monitored, but monitoring these electrolytes is not as important as potassium monitoring. (B) Chloride, HCO3, and sodium will need to be monitored, but monitoring these electrolytes is not as important as potassium monitoring. (C) Potassium will need to be closely monitored because of its effects on the heart. Hypokalemia could result in supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. (D) Chloride, HCO3, and sodium will need to be monitored, but monitoring these electrolytes is not as important as potassium monitoring.
NEW QUESTION # 121
A female client is started on warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg po bid. To adequately evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy, the nurse must know that this medication:
- A. Stimulates the manufacturing of platelets
- B. Prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
- C. Dissolves any clots already formed in the arteries
- D. Interferes with the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Thrombolytic agents (e.g., streptokinase) directly activate plasminogen, dissolving fibrin deposits, which in turn dissolves clots that have already formed. (B) Heparin prevents the formation of clots by potentiating the effects of antithrombin III and the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. (C) Warfarin prevents the formation of clots by interfering with the hepatic synthesis of the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. (D) Platelets initiate the coagulation of blood by adhering to each other and the site of injury to form platelet plugs.
NEW QUESTION # 122
A female client plans to bottle-feed her newborn. Her physician has ordered bromocriptine (Parlodel) to suppress lactation. Which of the following instructions about bromocriptine should be given by the nurse?
- A. Her blood pressure must be stable before starting bromocriptine.
- B. Bromocriptine is generally taken for 5 days.
- C. Bromocriptine stimulates the production of prolactin.
- D. Hypertension is a primary side effect.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Bromocriptine inhibits the secretion of prolactin. (B) Hypotension is a side effect of this drug; hypertension is not. (C) Bromocriptine is generally taken for 14 days. (D) The administration of bromocriptine is delayed at least 4 hours postpartum and given only when the client's blood pressure is stable, because it can cause hypotension and syncope.
NEW QUESTION # 123
A 35-year-old client is receiving psychopharmacological treatment of his major depression with tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate), a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor. The nurse teaches the client that while he is taking this type of antidepressant, he needs to restrict his dietary intake of:
- A. Tryptophan
- B. Potassium-rich foods
- C. Tyramine
- D. Saturated fats
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A)
The client may need to avoid some potassium-rich foods (such as bananas, raisins, etc.). However, this is not because of the potassium content of these foods. (B) Tryptophan is an essential amino acid that is present in high concentrations in animal and fish protein.
(C)
The client will need to watch his dietary intake of tyramine. Tyramine is a by-product of the conversion of tyrosine to epinephrine. Tyramine is found in a variety of foods and beverages, ranging from aged cheese to caffeine drinks. Ingestion of tyramine-rich foods while taking a MAO inhibitor may lead to an increase in blood pressure and/or a life-threatening hypertensive crisis. (D) To maintain a healthy lifestyle, restriction of dietary saturated fats is advisable.
NEW QUESTION # 124
A 32-year-old male client is a marketing representative. His job requires him to have a tremendous amount of energy during the day. He frequently uses cocaine to sustain his energy level. Lately he has increased his use of cocaine and even experimented with crack cocaine. Realizing he can no longer continue this destructive behavior, he is seeking treatment for cocaine addiction. In planning nursing care for the client's inpatient stay, which expected outcome is most appropriate?
- A. He will attend four consecutive group educational sessions on substance abuse.
- B. He will meet with his family in counseling sessions and discuss his feelings.
- C. He will be able to deal with his feelings through participation in group therapy sessions.
- D. He will name activities that he would most likely be involved in posttreatment.
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) This expected outcome is specific as related to attendance, but not specific as related to outcome criteria. (B) Stating activities does not guarantee involvement. (C) This goal may help the recovery process, but postcounseling behavior is not addressed. (D) This statement best describes the expected outcome. The client will be attending group therapy sessions and through them he will deal with his feelings.
NEW QUESTION # 125
A 23-year-old college student seeks medical attention at the college infirmary for complaints of severe fatigue. Her skin is pale, and she reports exertional dyspnea. She is admitted to the hospital with possible aplastic anemia. Laboratory values reflect anemia, and the client is prepared for a bone marrow biopsy.
She refuses to sign the biopsy consent and states, "Can't you just get the doctor to give me a transfusion and let me go. This weekend begins spring break, and I have plans to go to Florida." At this time the nurse's greatest concern is that:
- A. The client may contract an infection as a result of being exposed to large crowds at spring break
- B. The client may require transfusion before leaving for spring break
- C. The client does not grasp the full impact of her illness
- D. The causative agent be identified and treatment begun
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The client could contract an infection, but at this point it is not the most pertinent issue. (B) The client's statement indicates that she does not grasp the full impact of her illness. Further client education must be given, along with allowing her to express her feelings regarding her illness. (C) The client may require a transfusion, but this is a temporary measure because the causative agent has not been identified. Her feelings regarding her illness must be addressed in order for care to continue. (D) A bone marrow is done first to make a definitive diagnosis; then treatment may begin.
NEW QUESTION # 126
Which of the following lab data is representative of a client with aplastic anemia?
- A. White blood cells 4000, erythrocytes 2.5 million, thrombocytes 100,000
- B. Red blood cells 1 million, white blood cells 1500, thrombocytes 16,000
- C. Hemoglobin 9.2, hematocrit 27, red blood cells 3.2 million
- D. White blood cells 3000, hematocrit 27, red blood cells 2.8 million
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A, B, C) Although all of the lab data are abnormal and although these values are decreased in aplastic anemia, the disorder is defined by severe deficits in red cell, white cell, and platelet counts. (D) Aplastic anemia is typically defined in terms of abnormalities of red blood cell count, usually <1 million, white cell count <2,000, and thrombocytes <20,000.
NEW QUESTION # 127
A 29-year-old client is diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. He has aroused the nurse's anger by using a condescending tone of voice with other clients and staff persons. Which of the following statements from the nurse would be most appropriate in acknowledging feelings regarding the client's behavior?
- A. "You make me angry when you talk to me that way."
- B. "I feel angry when I hear that tone of voice."
- C. "Are you trying to get me angry?"
- D. "Why do you treat me that way?"
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The nurse appropriately states how he or she feels when the client speaks in a condescending manner. (B) This statement indicates that the client has control over the nurse. No one makes another person angry; each individual has a choice. (C) "Why" questions usually put a person on the defensive. In addition, the client cannot "make" the nurse angry. The client does not have that control. (D) Again, a "why" statement places the client on the defensive.
NEW QUESTION # 128
A pregnant woman at 36 weeks' gestation is followed for PIH and develops proteinuria. To increase protein in her diet, which of the following foods will provide the greatest amount of protein when added to her intake of
100 mL of milk?
- A. One small scoop (90 g) vanilla ice cream and 1 tbsp chocolate syrup
- B. Fifty milliliters light cream and 2 tbsp corn syrup
- C. Thirty grams powdered skim milk and 1 egg
- D. One package vitamin-fortified gelatin drink
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This choice would provide more unwanted fat and sugar than protein. (B) Skim milk would add protein.
Eggs are good sources of protein while low in fat and calories. (C) The benefit of protein from ice cream would be outweighed by the fat content. Chocolate syrup has caffeine, which is contraindicated or limited in pregnancy. (D) Although most animal proteins are higher in protein than plant proteins, gelatin is not. It loses protein during the processing for food consumption.
NEW QUESTION # 129
A mother who is breast-feeding her newborn asks the RN, "How can I express milk from my breasts manually?" The RN tells her that the correct method for manual milk expression includes using the thumb and the index finger to:
- A. Slide the thumb and index finger forward from the outer border of the areola toward the end of the nipple
- B. Compress and release each breast at the outer border of the areola
- C. Roll the nipple and gently pull the nipple forward
- D. Alternately compress and release each nipple
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Manipulation of nipples will cause soreness and trauma. (B) Pulling the nipples will cause discomfort and soreness. (C) Sliding the thumb and index finger forward over the nipple will cause soreness. (D) The best method to express milk from the breast is to position the thumb and index finger at the outer border of the areola and compress. This is the location of the milk sinuses.
NEW QUESTION # 130
On morning rounds, the nurse found a manic-depressive client who is taking lithium in a confused mental state, vomiting, twitching, and exhibiting a coarse hand tremor. Which one of the following nursing actions is essential at this time?
- A. Contact the lab and request a lithium level in 30 minutes, and call the physician.
- B. Place her on NPO to decrease the excretion of lithium from her body, and call the physician.
- C. Withhold her lithium, and report her symptoms to the physician.
- D. Administer her next dosage of lithium, and then call the physician.
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) The client has lithium toxicity, and the nurse must withhold further dosages. (B) Because of her level of toxicity, further lithium could cause coma and death. The nurse needs further orders from the physician to stabilize the client's lithium level. (C) Ensuring adequate intake of sodium chloride will promote excretion of lithium and will assist in managing the client's lithiumtoxicity. (D) A lithium blood level must be drawn immediately to determine the seriousness of the toxicity and to provide the physician with data for medical orders.
NEW QUESTION # 131
Assessment of a newborn for Apgar scoring includes observation for:
- A. Pupil response
- B. Heart rate
- C. Babinski's reflex
- D. Respiratory rate
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Pupil response should be assessed but is not part of Apgar scoring. (B) Respiratory effort is an essential part of Apgar scoring, not respiratory rate. (C) Heart rate is the most critical component of Apgar scoring. (D) Assessment of Babinski's reflex is not a component of Apgar scoring.
NEW QUESTION # 132
The FHR pattern in a laboring client begins to show early decelerations. The nurse would best respond by:
- A. Changing the client to the left lateral position
- B. Administering O2 at 8 L/min via face mask
- C. Notifying the physician
- D. Continuing to monitor the FHR closely
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Early decelerations are reassuring and do not warrant notification of the physician. (B) Because early decelerations is a reassuring pattern, it would not be necessary to change the client's position. (C) Early decelerations warrant the continuation of close FHR monitoring to distinguish them from more ominous signs. (D) O2 is not warranted in this situation, but it is warranted in situations involving variable and/or late decelerations.
NEW QUESTION # 133
A 26-year-old female client presents at 10 weeks' gestation. She currently is a G3 1-0-1-1. Her mother and grandmother have heart disease. Her grandmother also has insulin-dependent diabetes. The client's previous delivery was a term female infant weighing 9 lb 13 oz. The client is 5 ft 6 inches tall and her current weight is
130 lb. Based on her history, she is at risk for developing diabetes in pregnancy. Which of the following factors places her at risk for gestational diabetes?
- A. Age>25 years
- B. Maternal weight
- C. Previous birth of an infant weighing>9 lb
- D. Family history of heart disease
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Maternal age older than 30 years is an identified risk factor for diabetes. Age younger than 30 years is insignificant for diabetes unless there is a familial history of diabetes. (B) The client's weight is appropriate for her height. Obesity or pregnancy weight >20% of the ideal weight is a contributing factor to the development of gestational diabetes. (C) The birth of an infant weighing >9 lb (4000 g) is an identified risk factor for gestational diabetes. (D) A familial history of heart disease is insignificant in the development of diabetes. However, a familial history of type II diabetes mellitus is identified as a risk factor in the development of diabetes during pregnancy.
NEW QUESTION # 134
One afternoon 3 weeks into his alcohol treatment program, a client says to the nurse, "It's really not all my fault that I have a drinking problem. Alcoholism runs in my family. Both my grandfather and father were heavy drinkers." The nurse's best response would be:
- A. "It sounds like you're intellectualizing your drinking problem."
- B. "That might be a problem. Tell me more about them."
- C. "Your grandfather and father were both alcoholics?"
- D. "Risk factors can often be controlled by self-responsibility."
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Focusing is an effective therapeutic strategy. This response, however, allows the client to "defocus" off the topic of learning how to accept responsibility for his behavior and future growth. (B) The nurse can educate the client about both the "genetic risk" for the development of alcoholism and ways to make long-term healthy lifestyle changes. (C) This response is inappropriately confrontational and condescending to the client. (D) Reflection of content can be an effective verbal therapeutic technique. It is used inappropriately here.
NEW QUESTION # 135
When assessing a female child for Turner's syndrome, the nurse observes for which of the following symptoms?
- A. Tall stature
- B. Secondary sex characteristics
- C. Gynecomastia
- D. Amenorrhea
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This syndrome is caused by absence of one of the X chromosomes. These children are short in stature. (B) Amenorrhea is a symptom of Turner's syndrome, which appears at puberty. (C) Sexual infantilism is characteristic of this syndrome. (D) Gynecomastia is a symptom in Klinefelter's syndrome.
NEW QUESTION # 136
A premature infant needs supplemental O2 therapy. A nursing intervention that reduces the risk of retrolental fibroplasia is to:
- A. Give moist O2at>40%
- B. Maintain O2at <40%
- C. Maintain on 100% O2
- D. Maintain O2at>40%
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Retrolental fibroplasia is the result of prolonged exposure to high levels of O2in premature infants.
Complications are hemorrhage and retinal detachment. (B, C, D) O2concentration is too high.
NEW QUESTION # 137
The mother of a 7-year-old mental health center client reports that the client has refused to attend gymnastics for the past 2 weeks. Prior to that time, the child liked going to this class and was attending 3 times a week. In talking with the client, the nurse would:
- A. Ask her to describe how things were at gymnastics before she started refusing to go
- B. Reassure her that things will get better once she begins the classes again
- C. Tell her that it is OK to be afraid of this activity
- D. Ask her why she doesn't like gymnastics anymore
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The child has not said that she dislikes gymnastics. (B) The nurse will be able to obtain information on what events occurred at gymnastics prior to her refusal to attend. The nurse will also gain information about the child's perception of the problem. (C) The child has not said she is afraid to go to gymnastics. (D) False reassurance is inappropriate.
NEW QUESTION # 138
After a liver biopsy, the best position for the client is:
- A. Supine
- B. Prone
- C. High Fowler
- D. Right lateral
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This position does not help to prevent bleeding. (B) This position does not help to prevent bleeding. (C) This position does not help to prevent bleeding. (D) The right lateral position would allow pressure on the liver to prevent bleeding.
NEW QUESTION # 139
A 42-year-old client with bipolar disorder has been hospitalized on the inpatient psychiatric unit. She is dancing around, talking incessantly, and singing. Much of the time the client is anorexic and eats very little from her tray before she is up and about again. The nurse's intervention would be to:
- A. Confront the client with the fact that she will have to eat more from her tray to sustain her
- B. Try to get the client to focus on her eating by offering a detailed discussion on the importance of nutrition
- C. Not expect the client to sit down for complete meals; monitor intake, offering snacks and juice frequently
- D. Let her have snacks and drinks anytime that she wants them because she will not eat at regular meal times
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The manic client's mood may easily change from euphoric to irritable. The nurse should avoid confrontation and let the client know what she can do, rather than what she cannot. (B) Although helpful to refocus or redirect the manic client to discuss only one topic at a time, distractibility is very high and it's best to avoid long discussions. (C) Manic clients have a tendency to manipulate persons in their environment. Staff should monitor intake, including at mealtime and snacks, and be consistent in their approach to meeting nutritional needs. (D) Manic clients may not sit and eat complete meals, but they can carry foods and liquids from regular meals with them. Staff can monitor and give high-caloric and high- energy snacks and liquids.
NEW QUESTION # 140
A client is being admitted to the labor and delivery unit. She has had previous admissions for "false labor." Which clinical manifestation would be most indicative of true labor?
- A. Decreased discomfort with ambulation
- B. Uterine contractions
- C. Progressive dilatation and effacement of the cervix
- D. Increased bloody show
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Bloody show is considered a sign of imminent labor, which usually begins in 24-48 hours. An increase in bloody show is an indication that the cervix is changing. (B) Contractions of true labor produce progressive cervical effacement and dilatation. (C) Contractions of false labor may mimic those of true labor. However, the contractions of false labor do not produce progressive effacement and dilatation of the cervix. (D) In true labor, the discomfort is not relieved by ambulation; walking may intensify the discomfort.
NEW QUESTION # 141
An 11-month-old infant is admitted with a possible diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. Which of the following best describes the characteristic clinical manifestations of pyloric stenosis?
- A. Increased frequency and quantity of stools
- B. Palpable olive-shaped mass in the epigastrium just right of the umbilical cord
- C. Pain, especially when eating
- D. Poor appetite and sucking reflex
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) There is no evidence of pain in infants with pyloric stenosis whether eating or not. (B) There are both good appetite and feeding habits in these children. (C) Because of regurgitation, there is usually decreased frequency and quantity of stools and also signs of dehydration and weight loss. (D) Along with upper abdominal distention, there is a characteristic palpable olive-shaped mass located to the right of the umbilicus.
NEW QUESTION # 142
......
NCLEX-RN Dumps PDF - Want To Pass NCLEX-RN Fast: https://actualtests.real4prep.com/NCLEX-RN-exam.html